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Free 500-275 exam questions and answers


What is the default command-line switch configuration, if you run a connector installation with no parameters?

A. /desktopicon 0 /startmenu 1 /contextmenu 1 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 0
B. /desktopicon 1 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 0
C. /desktopicon 0 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 1 /skiptetra 1
D. /desktopicon 1 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 1

Correct Answer: A



When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?

A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C



Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?

A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A



When you are viewing information about a computer, what is displayed?

A. the type of antivirus software that is installed
B. the internal IP address
C. when the operating system was installed
D. the console settings

Correct Answer: B



The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?

A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C



The Accounts menu contains items that are related to FireAMP console accounts. Which menu allows you to set the
default group policy?

A. Audit Log
B. Users
C. Applications
D. Business

Correct Answer: D



How does application blocking enhance security?

A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D



Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?

A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA- 256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A



The Update Window allows you to perform which action?

A. identify which hosts need to be updated
B. email the user to download a new client
C. specify a timeframe when an upgrade can be started and stopped
D. update your cloud instance

Correct Answer: C



What is the first system that is infected with a particular malware called?

A. Patient Zero
B. Source
C. Infector
D. Carrier

Correct Answer: A



Which question should be in your predeployment checklist?

A. How often are backup jobs run?
B. Are any Linux servers being deployed?
C. Who are the users of the hosts on which you will deploy?
D. Which applications are installed on the hosts on which you will deploy?

Correct Answer: D



Which feature allows retrospective detection?

A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B



Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?

A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C



Which information does the File Trajectory feature show?

A. the time that the scan was run
B. the name of the file
C. the hosts on which the file was seen and points in time where events occurred
D. the protocol

Correct Answer: C



Which of these can you use for two-step authentication?

A. the Apple Authenticator app
B. the Google Authenticator app
C. a SecurID token
D. any RFC 1918 compatible application

Correct Answer: B

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